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jezza science forum beginner
Joined: 28 May 2005
Posts: 8
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Posted: Sat May 28, 2005 3:51 pm Post subject:
Mean Value Theorem in Several Dimensions
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Hey guys,
I have been told that the mean values theorem
f'(c) = (f(b) − f(a))/(b − a) for f : [a, b] R -> Rn continuous does not hold true. Can anybody think of a simple counterexample that would prove that it is not true? My brain does not seem to be functioning properly :)
Thanks for the help
Jezza |
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jezza science forum beginner
Joined: 28 May 2005
Posts: 8
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Posted: Sat May 28, 2005 4:01 pm Post subject:
Re: Mean Value Theorem in Several Dimensions
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Sorry
that was supposed to be subtraction signs instead of question marks. i dont know why it did not work |
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The World Wide Wade science forum Guru
Joined: 24 Mar 2005
Posts: 790
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Posted: Sat May 28, 2005 6:19 pm Post subject:
Re: Mean Value Theorem in Several Dimensions
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In article
<6312973.1117295544931.JavaMail.jakarta@nitrogen.mathforum.org>,
jezza <big__jezz@hotmail.com> wrote:
| Quote: | I have been told that the mean values theorem
f'(c) = (f(b) - f(a))/(b - a) for f : [a, b] R -> Rn continuous
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Why do you say continuous? f is differentiable, right?
| Quote: | does not
hold true. Can anybody think of a simple counterexample that would prove
that it is not true? My brain does not seem to be functioning properly
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The most famous example involves moving once around a circle. You
arrive at where you started, so f(b) - f(a) = 0. But there need
not be any time where the velocity (the derivative) is 0, right?
You could also look at examples like f(x) = (x^2, x^3) on [0,1]. |
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William Elliot science forum Guru
Joined: 24 Mar 2005
Posts: 1906
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Posted: Sat May 28, 2005 7:05 pm Post subject:
Re: Mean Value Theorem in Several Dimensions
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On Sat, 28 May 2005, jezza wrote:
| Quote: | Sorry
that was supposed to be subtraction signs instead of question marks. i
dont know why it did not work
Because there is a vast variety of news browsers that render special |
character in various weird ways. For best results to be read by all
news browsers use ascii text only, ie just the characters on the
keyboard. |
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The World Wide Wade science forum Guru
Joined: 24 Mar 2005
Posts: 790
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Posted: Sat May 28, 2005 11:41 pm Post subject:
Re: Mean Value Theorem in Several Dimensions
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In article
<19135042.1117328335198.JavaMail.jakarta@nitrogen.mathforum.org>,
jezza <big__jezz@hotmail.com> wrote:
| Quote: | hey,
Thanks for the help. With the circle example, would the mean value theorem
by undefined? Since f(b) - f(a) divided by b-a where b-a= 0 undefined?
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How can a theorem be undefined? You're getting confused. You go
around a circle in, let's say, one minute, the velocity never
equaling 0. Think about it.
| Quote: | For the other example, how could you proved that there is no point that it
works for? f(x) = (x^2, x^3) on [0,1]. Can you say:
let b=a, a=0
so f(1)-f(0) = (1,1)-(0,0)/(1-0)
= (1,1)
f'(x)=(2x,3x^2)
so if f'(c)=(1,1) the first component 1 = 2c => c=1/2 only solution. But for
the second component if c=1/2 f'(c) second component is 3/4 does not equal 1.
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I gave you the example. You have to decide if it's right. |
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jezza science forum beginner
Joined: 28 May 2005
Posts: 8
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Posted: Sun May 29, 2005 12:58 am Post subject:
Re: Mean Value Theorem in Several Dimensions
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hey,
Thanks for the help. With the circle example, would the mean value theorem by undefined? Since f(b) - f(a) divided by b-a where b-a= 0 undefined?
For the other example, how could you proved that there is no point that it works for? f(x) = (x^2, x^3) on [0,1]. Can you say:
let b=a, a=0
so f(1)-f(0) = (1,1)-(0,0)/(1-0)
= (1,1)
f'(x)=(2x,3x^2)
so if f'(c)=(1,1) the first component 1 = 2c => c=1/2 only solution. But for the second component if c=1/2 f'(c) second component is 3/4 does not equal 1.
Hope this is right. I will be very happy. |
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jezza science forum beginner
Joined: 28 May 2005
Posts: 8
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Posted: Sun May 29, 2005 8:33 am Post subject:
Re: Mean Value Theorem in Several Dimensions
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My proof is there and I agree that it is a counterexample. Is my proof correct?
THanks |
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David C. Ullrich science forum Guru
Joined: 28 Apr 2005
Posts: 2250
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Posted: Sun May 29, 2005 9:21 am Post subject:
Re: Mean Value Theorem in Several Dimensions
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On Sat, 28 May 2005 20:58:24 EDT, jezza <big__jezz@hotmail.com> wrote:
| Quote: | hey,
Thanks for the help. With the circle example, would the mean value theorem by undefined? Since f(b) - f(a) divided by b-a where b-a= 0 undefined?
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No, in that example b-a > 0. But f(b) - f(a) = 0, while there's no
point x with f'(x) = 0.
| Quote: | For the other example, how could you proved that there is no point that it works for? f(x) = (x^2, x^3) on [0,1]. Can you say:
let b=a, a=0
so f(1)-f(0) = (1,1)-(0,0)/(1-0)
= (1,1)
f'(x)=(2x,3x^2)
so if f'(c)=(1,1) the first component 1 = 2c => c=1/2 only solution. But for the second component if c=1/2 f'(c) second component is 3/4 does not equal 1.
Hope this is right. I will be very happy.
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************************
David C. Ullrich |
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jezza science forum beginner
Joined: 28 May 2005
Posts: 8
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Posted: Sun May 29, 2005 11:50 am Post subject:
Re: Mean Value Theorem in Several Dimensions
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If you walk around in a circle, arent 'b' and 'a' the same point? If not, what are the points such that f(a) - f(b) = 0? But more importantly, is my working out for the function f(x) = (x^2, x^3) on [0,1] correct? |
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The World Wide Wade science forum Guru
Joined: 24 Mar 2005
Posts: 790
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Posted: Mon May 30, 2005 4:01 am Post subject:
Re: Mean Value Theorem in Several Dimensions
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In article
<11321050.1117367463443.JavaMail.jakarta@nitrogen.mathforum.org>,
jezza <big__jezz@hotmail.com> wrote:
| Quote: | If you walk around in a circle, arent 'b' and 'a' the same point?
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No; f(a) and f(b) are the same, a and b are not.
| Quote: | If not,
what are the points such that f(a) - f(b) = 0?
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This is very simple; review your trig.
| Quote: | But more importantly, is my
working out for the function f(x) = (x^2, x^3) on [0,1] correct?
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I don't know, I didn't read it. I gave you the example; it's up
to you to do the rest. |
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